Skip to main content
MathOverflow

Return to Question

Post Closed as "Not suitable for this site" by Monroe Eskew, Dave Benson, Qiaochu Yuan, Daniele Tampieri, abx
Added extended reference
Source Link
Daniele Tampieri
Daniele Tampieri
  • 6.4k
  • 7
  • 30
  • 45

Recently four mathematicians claimed to have proven the invariant subspace problem, which is the problem that states

Does every bounded operator on a separable Hilbert space have a non-trivial invariant subspace?

They claimed to have proven the existence of a non-zero weak limit that is orthogonal to the entire space and that gave rise to a contradiction.

For those interested this is the link to the paper:  

Roshdi Khalil, Yousef Abdelrahman, Alshanti Waseem Ghazi, and Abu Hammad Ma’mon, "https://www.mdpi.com/2075-1680/13/9/598The Invariant Subspace Problem for Separable Hilbert Spaces" Axioms 13, no. 9: 598 (2024) DOI:10.3390/axioms13090598.

So my question is, since the paper was published in a journal does that mean the problem is closed?

Recently four mathematicians claimed to have proven the invariant subspace problem, which is the problem that states

Does every bounded operator on a separable Hilbert space have a non-trivial invariant subspace?

They claimed to have proven the existence of a non-zero weak limit that is orthogonal to the entire space and that gave rise to a contradiction.

For those interested this is the link to the paper:  https://www.mdpi.com/2075-1680/13/9/598

So my question is, since the paper was published in a journal does that mean the problem is closed?

Recently four mathematicians claimed to have proven the invariant subspace problem, which is the problem that states

Does every bounded operator on a separable Hilbert space have a non-trivial invariant subspace?

They claimed to have proven the existence of a non-zero weak limit that is orthogonal to the entire space and that gave rise to a contradiction.

For those interested this is the link to the paper:

Roshdi Khalil, Yousef Abdelrahman, Alshanti Waseem Ghazi, and Abu Hammad Ma’mon, "The Invariant Subspace Problem for Separable Hilbert Spaces" Axioms 13, no. 9: 598 (2024) DOI:10.3390/axioms13090598.

So my question is, since the paper was published in a journal does that mean the problem is closed?

deleted 2 characters in body
Source Link
euleroid
euleroid
  • 77
  • 3

Recently four mathematicians claimed to have proven the invariant subspace problem, which is the problem that states

Does every bounded operator on a separable Hilbert space have a non-trivial invariant subspace?

They claimed to have proven the existence of a non-zero weak limit that is orthogonal to the entire space and that gave rise to a contradiction.

For those interested this is the link to the paper: "https://www.mdpi.com/2075-1680/13/9/598"https://www.mdpi.com/2075-1680/13/9/598

So my question is, since the paper was published in a journal does that mean the problem is closed?

Recently four mathematicians claimed to have proven the invariant subspace problem, which is the problem that states

Does every bounded operator on a separable Hilbert space have a non-trivial invariant subspace?

They claimed to have proven the existence of a non-zero weak limit that is orthogonal to the entire space and that gave rise to a contradiction.

For those interested this is the link to the paper: "https://www.mdpi.com/2075-1680/13/9/598"

So my question is, since the paper was published in a journal does that mean the problem is closed?

Recently four mathematicians claimed to have proven the invariant subspace problem, which is the problem that states

Does every bounded operator on a separable Hilbert space have a non-trivial invariant subspace?

They claimed to have proven the existence of a non-zero weak limit that is orthogonal to the entire space and that gave rise to a contradiction.

For those interested this is the link to the paper: https://www.mdpi.com/2075-1680/13/9/598

So my question is, since the paper was published in a journal does that mean the problem is closed?

Source Link
euleroid
euleroid
  • 77
  • 3

a claim for a proof of the invariant subspace problem

Recently four mathematicians claimed to have proven the invariant subspace problem, which is the problem that states

Does every bounded operator on a separable Hilbert space have a non-trivial invariant subspace?

They claimed to have proven the existence of a non-zero weak limit that is orthogonal to the entire space and that gave rise to a contradiction.

For those interested this is the link to the paper: "https://www.mdpi.com/2075-1680/13/9/598"

So my question is, since the paper was published in a journal does that mean the problem is closed?