Consider the IVP $$ \left\{ \begin{aligned} \frac{d}{dt} \Phi_n(t,x) &= f_n(\Phi_n(t,x)) && \forall t \in \mathbf{R}_+ \\ \Phi_n(0,x) &= x && \forall x \in \mathbf{R} \end{aligned}\right. $$ for $n \in \mathbf N$.
Suppose $f_n:\mathbf R \to \mathbf R$ is Lipschitz for every $n \in \mathbf N$ and satisfies the bound $\|f_n\|_{L^1(\mathbf R)} + \|f_n\|_{L^\infty(\mathbf R)} < 1 $ (but not a uniform bound on the derivative $f'_n$). Then there exists $\overline f$ and a subsequence (say $f_{n_k}$) such that $f_n \overset{\ast}{\rightharpoonup} \overline f $$f_{n_k} \overset{\ast}{\rightharpoonup} \overline f $ in $L^\infty$ (or weakly in $L^p$ for $1 < p < \infty$).
Is it true that $\Phi_n$$\Phi_{n_k}$ converges (possibly up to extracting another subsequence) in some sense to a Filippov solution $\Phi$ of $$ \left\{ \begin{aligned} \frac{d}{dt} \Phi(t,x) &= \bar f(\Phi(t,x)) && \forall t \in \mathbf{R}_+ \\ \Phi(0,x) &= x && \forall x \in \mathbf{R} \end{aligned} \right.\quad? $$