If I know that \Phi_\varepsilon
$\Phi_\varepsilon$ is bounded in L^{\infty}
(\mathbb{R}^{2d}
)$L^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^{2d})$ and that \nabla \Phi_\varepsilon
$\nabla \Phi_\varepsilon$ is bounded in L^{\infty}
(\mathbb{R}^{2d}
)$L^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^{2d})$, is it true that \nabla \Phi_\varepsilon \to \nabla \Phi
$\nabla \Phi_\varepsilon \to \nabla \Phi$, where \Phi
$\Phi$ is the limit of \Phi_\varepsilon
$\Phi_\varepsilon$ as $\varepsilon \to 0$ (in the weak sense)?