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Question 2: Is (\ref{1}) a well-defined measure on its own, for all values of $m \ge 0$? How does the ultraviolet divergencies influence the existence of this measure? Does it play any role on its well-definiteness or just on correlation functions?
Question 2: Is (\ref{1}) a well-defined measure on its own, for all values of $m \ge 0$?
Question 2: Is (\ref{1}) a well-defined measure on its own, for all values of $m \ge 0$? How does the ultraviolet divergencies influence the existence of this measure? Does it play any role on its well-definiteness or just on correlation functions?
