Skip to main content
added 116 characters in body
Source Link
Allen Knutson
  • 27.9k
  • 4
  • 54
  • 152

Q. Why is it a surjection? A. It's a nonzero $G$-equivariant map to (by Borel-Weil) a $G$-irrep.

(Of course this has punted the difficulty, solved geometrically by the commenters, into the Borel-Weil theorem.)

Q. Why is it a surjection? A. It's a nonzero $G$-equivariant map to (by Borel-Weil) a $G$-irrep.

Q. Why is it a surjection? A. It's a nonzero $G$-equivariant map to (by Borel-Weil) a $G$-irrep.

(Of course this has punted the difficulty, solved geometrically by the commenters, into the Borel-Weil theorem.)

Source Link
Allen Knutson
  • 27.9k
  • 4
  • 54
  • 152

Q. Why is it a surjection? A. It's a nonzero $G$-equivariant map to (by Borel-Weil) a $G$-irrep.