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I posted this question on crypto.SE but got no answer:

Let $w = a_0 \cdot a_1 \cdots a_{n-1} $ be a word from $ \{0,1\}^n $, $|w| = n$

Let $m = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{ a_i \cdot 2 ^ {n-1-i} } $ be the corresponding binary number constructed from the word. Let $k= \left \lfloor \frac{n!}{2^n} \right \rfloor \cdot (m+1)$ , then $ 1 \le k \le n! $.

Compute the Lehmer-Permutation $\pi_k$ from $k$ on $n$ numbers. ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lehmer_code )

Set $ x := \pi_k \cdot w = a_{\pi_k(0)} \cdot a_{\pi_k(1)} \cdots a_{\pi_k(n-1)} $

Then $f(w) := x$.

So the function permutes the digits in the word $w$ and the permutation is determined by $w$.

Suppose you randomly choose uniformly a word from $\{0,1\}^{1000}$ and then you apply the function. Is it practically possible to invert the constructed word? That is, does somebody have an idea on how to invert the word?

More details may be found on:

http://orgesleka.blogspot.de/2015/09/candidate-one-way-function.html

This picture shows f applied on all words of length 7: graph-7

After two years, also posted on cs: https://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/110790/inverting-a-function

I posted this question on crypto.SE but got no answer:

Let $w = a_0 \cdot a_1 \cdots a_{n-1} $ be a word from $ \{0,1\}^n $, $|w| = n$

Let $m = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{ a_i \cdot 2 ^ {n-1-i} } $ be the corresponding binary number constructed from the word. Let $k= \left \lfloor \frac{n!}{2^n} \right \rfloor \cdot (m+1)$ , then $ 1 \le k \le n! $.

Compute the Lehmer-Permutation $\pi_k$ from $k$ on $n$ numbers. ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lehmer_code )

Set $ x := \pi_k \cdot w = a_{\pi_k(0)} \cdot a_{\pi_k(1)} \cdots a_{\pi_k(n-1)} $

Then $f(w) := x$.

So the function permutes the digits in the word $w$ and the permutation is determined by $w$.

Suppose you randomly choose uniformly a word from $\{0,1\}^{1000}$ and then you apply the function. Is it practically possible to invert the constructed word? That is, does somebody have an idea on how to invert the word?

More details may be found on:

http://orgesleka.blogspot.de/2015/09/candidate-one-way-function.html

This picture shows f applied on all words of length 7: graph-7

I posted this question on crypto.SE but got no answer:

Let $w = a_0 \cdot a_1 \cdots a_{n-1} $ be a word from $ \{0,1\}^n $, $|w| = n$

Let $m = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{ a_i \cdot 2 ^ {n-1-i} } $ be the corresponding binary number constructed from the word. Let $k= \left \lfloor \frac{n!}{2^n} \right \rfloor \cdot (m+1)$ , then $ 1 \le k \le n! $.

Compute the Lehmer-Permutation $\pi_k$ from $k$ on $n$ numbers. ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lehmer_code )

Set $ x := \pi_k \cdot w = a_{\pi_k(0)} \cdot a_{\pi_k(1)} \cdots a_{\pi_k(n-1)} $

Then $f(w) := x$.

So the function permutes the digits in the word $w$ and the permutation is determined by $w$.

Suppose you randomly choose uniformly a word from $\{0,1\}^{1000}$ and then you apply the function. Is it practically possible to invert the constructed word? That is, does somebody have an idea on how to invert the word?

More details may be found on:

http://orgesleka.blogspot.de/2015/09/candidate-one-way-function.html

This picture shows f applied on all words of length 7: graph-7

After two years, also posted on cs: https://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/110790/inverting-a-function

Notice added Draw attention by user6671
Bounty Started worth 500 reputation by CommunityBot
added 126 characters in body
Source Link
user6671
user6671

I posted this question on crypto.SE but got no answer:

Let $w = a_0 \cdot a_1 \cdots a_{n-1} $ be a word from $ \{0,1\}^n $, $|w| = n$

Let $m = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{ a_i \cdot 2 ^ {n-1-i} } $ be the corresponding binary number constructed from the word. Let $k= \left \lfloor \frac{n!}{2^n} \right \rfloor \cdot (m+1)$ , then $ 1 \le k \le n! $.

Compute the Lehmer-Permutation $\pi_k$ from $k$ on $n$ numbers. ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lehmer_code )

Set $ x := \pi_k \cdot w = a_{\pi_k(0)} \cdot a_{\pi_k(1)} \cdots a_{\pi_k(n-1)} $

Then $f(w) := x$.

So the function permutes the digits in the word $w$ and the permutation is determined by $w$.

Suppose you randomly choose uniformly a word from $\{0,1\}^{1000}$ and then you apply the function. Is it practically possible to invert the constructed word? That is, does somebody have an idea on how to invert the word?

More details may be found on:

http://orgesleka.blogspot.de/2015/09/candidate-one-way-function.html

This picture shows f applied on all words of length 7: graph-7

I posted this question on crypto.SE but got no answer:

Let $w = a_0 \cdot a_1 \cdots a_{n-1} $ be a word from $ \{0,1\}^n $, $|w| = n$

Let $m = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{ a_i \cdot 2 ^ {n-1-i} } $ be the corresponding binary number constructed from the word. Let $k= \left \lfloor \frac{n!}{2^n} \right \rfloor \cdot (m+1)$ , then $ 1 \le k \le n! $.

Compute the Lehmer-Permutation $\pi_k$ from $k$ on $n$ numbers. ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lehmer_code )

Set $ x := \pi_k \cdot w = a_{\pi_k(0)} \cdot a_{\pi_k(1)} \cdots a_{\pi_k(n-1)} $

Then $f(w) := x$.

So the function permutes the digits in the word $w$ and the permutation is determined by $w$.

Suppose you randomly choose uniformly a word from $\{0,1\}^{1000}$ and then you apply the function. Is it practically possible to invert the constructed word? That is, does somebody have an idea on how to invert the word?

More details may be found on:

http://orgesleka.blogspot.de/2015/09/candidate-one-way-function.html

I posted this question on crypto.SE but got no answer:

Let $w = a_0 \cdot a_1 \cdots a_{n-1} $ be a word from $ \{0,1\}^n $, $|w| = n$

Let $m = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{ a_i \cdot 2 ^ {n-1-i} } $ be the corresponding binary number constructed from the word. Let $k= \left \lfloor \frac{n!}{2^n} \right \rfloor \cdot (m+1)$ , then $ 1 \le k \le n! $.

Compute the Lehmer-Permutation $\pi_k$ from $k$ on $n$ numbers. ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lehmer_code )

Set $ x := \pi_k \cdot w = a_{\pi_k(0)} \cdot a_{\pi_k(1)} \cdots a_{\pi_k(n-1)} $

Then $f(w) := x$.

So the function permutes the digits in the word $w$ and the permutation is determined by $w$.

Suppose you randomly choose uniformly a word from $\{0,1\}^{1000}$ and then you apply the function. Is it practically possible to invert the constructed word? That is, does somebody have an idea on how to invert the word?

More details may be found on:

http://orgesleka.blogspot.de/2015/09/candidate-one-way-function.html

This picture shows f applied on all words of length 7: graph-7

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