Recently I'm thinking about below question, but I can not prove or disprove it.

Is it true that for every model $M\models I\Delta_0$ there exists a model $M'\models PA$ such that $M'$ is end extension of $M$?

How can this statement prove or disprove?

Thanks.

Recently I'm thinking about question below, but I can not prove or disprove it.

Is it true that for every model $M\models I\Delta_0$ there exists a model $M'\models PA$ such that $M'$ is end extension of $M$?

How can this statement be proved or disproved?

Thanks.