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nivel
  • Member for 14 years, 2 months
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In 1D, is a $W^{1,p}$ function always Lipschitz, for $p\ge1$?
Yes. I there is a change of variable mistake in the details I did not show (in the second equality). Thanks.
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In 1D, is a $W^{1,p}$ function always Lipschitz, for $p\ge1$?
I see, thanks. When I changed the variable to s, I need the $x-y$ back. Thanks.
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