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Doesn’t the short exact sequence $1 \to \widehat{F^{\times}} / \widehat G \to \widehat{E^{\times}} \to \widehat K \to 1$ imply that any character of $K$ has infinitely many extensions to $E^{\times}$?
If you apply $\text{Hom}(-,A)$ to your map for an $R$-algebra $A$, won't both sides be described by $(f,g) \in \text{Hom}(\mathfrak g_1,A) \times \text{Hom}(\mathfrak g_2,A)$ such that $[f(x),g(y)] = 0$ for all $x,y$?