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Grigori
  • Member for 9 months
  • Last seen more than a month ago
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Convergence of probabilities imply convergence of joint probability
Indeed, @IosifPinelis, thank you for saying that :) I think simple triangle inequality will solve everything here.
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Convergence of probabilities imply convergence of joint probability
@tsnao, fair point. I assume now that these RV are defined on the same space. I also added the "dependence vanishing condition". Would it help somehow?
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Convergence of probabilities imply convergence of joint probability
@ChristianRemling, thank you, I misunderstood you. I know something about the dependence of $X_n$ and $Y_n$, I will add it to the question.
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Convergence of probabilities imply convergence of joint probability
@ChristianRemling, but in this case there won't be convergence of $|P(X_n \in A) - P(\tilde{X}_n \in A)| \to 0$.
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Convergence of probabilities imply convergence of joint probability
@tsnao, thank you for the comment, I corrected the question, there was a typo: $X_n$ and $Y_n$ could be dependent, but $\tilde{X}_n$ and $\tilde{Y}_n$ are independent for any $n$.
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