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user83008
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Localisation of two rings which is an integral extension, then integral extension still holds?
Sorry, I didn't know that here we can't ask for the verification for the proof. By the way, this proof I think is right, and it proves a proposition is true in a special case while it is wrong generally according to other experts' opinions. Anyhow, thanks for your reminding about the principles in mathoverflow.
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Localisation of two rings which is an integral extension, then integral extension still holds?
Thanks for your answer. Could you examine the proof I give above?
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