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Matt's user avatar
Matt
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  • Member for 14 years, 10 months
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Where's the notion of interpretation (model) originally introduced?
What puzzles me is that Skolem worked on his proof of Löwenheim–Skolem theorem in 1920, which is prior to Tarski's article. Gödel's completeness theorem is prior to Tarski's article too. How did they have such results without having a well-defined notion of semantics?
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