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@Will: I am totally lost as to what you mean by 'smallest subinterval $[p-1,p]$ ... which after $p$ is that number ends at $-1$.' Also, you refer to primes where $Pi(x=p)$ is odd. However, the unresolved 'pattern' relates to $Pi(x=p)$ being even. If thats what $p_1$ and $p_2$ deal with, I'm really sorry. May I ask for a complete example, so I can understand better? Thanks!
$-1$ cannot occur, is more personal opinion and evidence based guessing than proven fact. Maybe I didn't make that clear. Making the assumption seems to make the problem 'almost' susceptible to inductive methods, heuristics, or some witch's brew of everything we need :)
@quid: Yes, conjecture is equivalent to $Z_f(P({2n}))=1$ Also, so far, $-1$ hasn't shown up for me (and I assume, for others who checked via programs, otherwise they would have posted). It is very possible that there is some prime number with $Z_f$ equal to $-1$. However, I find it unlikely as every odd number so far has terminated in $\{0,1,2\}$ only. Check the page on M.SE, I think it has a better explanation.
Also, while we inductively prove for the next prime $q$, we also need to prove that $z \in \{0,1,2\}$ for all $2r>k>2q$ where $r$ is the next prime (before we attempt induction on $r$).