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Very nice! I've just checked with SageMath that your permutation avoidance class has size $\dbinom{2n-2}{n-1}$ for all $n \leq 8$; this greatly improves the chances that you did things right. (Though some other classes have the same size, such as the slightly more memorable "avoid all $4$-patterns starting with a $4$ except for $4321$ and $4123$".) This actually makes me wonder if some Wilf equivalences can be explained by the invariance of the dimension applied to a quotient vector space of the symmetric group algebra, with two different confluent rewrite rules.
(I have taken the liberty to replace inverse matrices by adjugate matrices here, though strictly speaking this slightly weakens the notion of diagonalizability. I think it makes for a nicer problem :)
The "cleanest" argument from the viewpoint of algebraic combinatorics would be showing that diagonalizable matrices are scheme-theoretically Zariski-dense in all matrices, i.e., that the algebra morphism from the coordinate ring of $R^{n\times n}$ (where $R$ is our base ring) to the coordinate ring of $R^{n\times n} \oplus R^n$ that evaluates each regular function (= polynomial in the entries of an $n\times n$-matrix) $f$ at the matrix product $A \operatorname{diag}\left(b_1,b_2,\ldots,b_n\right) \operatorname{adj}A$ is injective. Maybe there is a SAGBI basis for that?
By the way, are you sure about $s_{z/y}^{*}(c,d,-p)=\det((-1)^{z_{i}-y_{j}-i+j}e_{z_{i}-y_{j}-i+j} (p_{i+1},...,p_{N}) )$? This makes it sound like the entries in column $i$ should lie between $i+1$ and $N$, whereas your definition makes them lie between $1$ and $N-i$. Or does your $-p$ include flipping the order of the $p$'s as well?
The simplest approach appears to be considering the semistandard tableaux of shapes $\lambda / \nu$ and $\nu / \mu$ as one single semistandard tableau of shape $\lambda / \mu$, and fixing the latter. Then, the only sum that remains is a sum over all possible partitions $\nu$ that lie between $\mu$ and $\lambda$ and make the flagging conditions true for our tableau. Is this sum always $1$ or $0$ ? Can we prove it by toggling a single cell between the above-$\nu$ and below-$\nu$ parts? We would need to find a toggleable cell $\left(i,j\right)$ with entry lying in $\left[i+1,N-j\right]$.
Note that the de Longchamps point of a triangle is the reflection of its orthocenter in its circumcenter. Since the circumcenters of all four triangles are identical, this makes claim 2 a lot less surprising (the fact that the orthocenters form a quadrilateral anti-congruent to $ABCD$ is, I think, well-known). Claim 1 is the interesting one.