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Cheng Peng's user avatar
Cheng Peng's user avatar
Cheng Peng's user avatar
Cheng Peng
  • Member for 13 years, 6 months
  • China
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Can we represent computable functions by r.e. sets ?
thank you very much for your helpful answer. I guess the answer is no but I cannot find a counter example. I am a neophyte who learn computability theory and I am unfamiliar with forcing. Thanks again.
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