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Ok. I only have a question about the first line when you defined $v$: I know that $v(x, y)=\Im(f(z)) =\frac{f(z) - \overline {f(z)}} {2i}$. So, is your $v$ is the same as the imaginary part of $f$? According to what you wrote it is like having $v(x, y)=\frac{f(z) - \overline {f(\bar{z} )}} {2i}$!!!