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Twey
  • Member for 6 years, 2 months
  • Last seen more than 6 years ago
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Proof of ¬(¬1 ⊗ ¬1) in tensorial logic
I have to say, this is very surprising to me in a game-semantic sense. Surely it's always possible to win the dialogue game represented by ¬(¬1 ⊗ ¬1).
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Proof of ¬(¬1 ⊗ ¬1) in tensorial logic
Apologies for the notation. I should have said 1 — I've edited the question.
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