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There seems to be a typo in the definition of a $p$-nuclear operator: one should have $\|(y_n)_n\|_q^w<\infty$, where $1/p+1/q=1$. Likewise, the expression for $\nu_p(T)$ should be corrected.
Now, every $Y$ as above is a quotient of $L_1[0,1]$, and hence every $X$ as above is a subspace of $L_\infty$. Thus, $S$ is a weakly compact subset of $L_\infty$ and therefore norm separable.
If $\Delta$ is as suggested by Robert, then, again by one of the corollaries of Baire's theorem, $\chi_\Delta$ has a point of continuity (being Baire-$1$), which it doesn't. I think, Robert's $C_n$ are all empty (hence closed!), since $f_n$ is continuous; still the convergence assumption would force the union of the $C_n$ to be $[0,1]$. -- As for notation, it seems to me that the OP has defined his own ``weakish'' convergence different from weak convergence in Banach spaces.
The condition is reasonable; e.g., the constant-1 function in $C[0,1]$ is such an $x$ (and it is extreme). Note that the set of all vectors satisfying the condition in the question is closed; so the best one can hope for is that $x$ is in the (norm-) closure of $E_X$.
But what are the $e_i$??? What if $n=1$ and $e_1$ is some vector of norm 1000?? [I half guess that you want to refer to the unit vectors; if so, please say so.] And which $p$ do you consider?
Are you assuming anything about the $e_i$, like $\|e_i\|_{p,\infty}\le1$? And is your actual question whether $\|x-y\|_{p,\infty}\le 1$ for $x,y$ in the closed convex hull of $C$?
@Tanmoy: Let $K=\alpha(\mathbf{N})=\mathbf{N}\cup\{\infty\}$. Let $f(n)=1-\frac1n$ and $f(\infty)=1$. Then $f\in C(K)$ is a smooth point of the unit ball, normed by the limit functional. However, in the bidual ($= \ell_\infty( \mathbf{N}\cup\{\infty\} )$) this function is normed by every Banach limit, so $f$ is not smooth in the bidual.