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Equivariant Cohomology for actions with finite stabilizers

The argument in the quoted paper is a bit too sketchy. An actual proof will have two parts: Let $f:X \to Y$ be map. Assume that for each $y \in Y$, $\tilde{H}^{\ast} (f^{-1}(y);\mathbb{Q})=0$ (this …
Johannes Ebert's user avatar