Search Results
| Search type | Search syntax |
|---|---|
| Tags | [tag] |
| Exact | "words here" |
| Author |
user:1234 user:me (yours) |
| Score |
score:3 (3+) score:0 (none) |
| Answers |
answers:3 (3+) answers:0 (none) isaccepted:yes hasaccepted:no inquestion:1234 |
| Views | views:250 |
| Code | code:"if (foo != bar)" |
| Sections |
title:apples body:"apples oranges" |
| URL | url:"*.example.com" |
| Saves | in:saves |
| Status |
closed:yes duplicate:no migrated:no wiki:no |
| Types |
is:question is:answer |
| Exclude |
-[tag] -apples |
| For more details on advanced search visit our help page | |
Results tagged with fa.functional-analysis
Search options not deleted
user 27744
Banach spaces, function spaces, real functions, integral transforms, theory of distributions, measure theory.
0
votes
Direct proof of "K is projective iff C(K) has the Hahn-Banach property" ?
Maybe I made a stupid mistake, but I think something along the following lines should work:
Let $1_K$ be the standard order unit of $C(K)$. There is a canonical identification of $K$ with the subset …
- 1