despite both zetas $ \zeta (s,X) $ and $ \zeta (s)$ have the same functional equation, the same Euler prodcut and the same Riemann-Weil formula
why one of them is 'easy' and can be solved but the other is so hard?? the zeta one $ \zeta (s)$
despite both zetas $ \zeta (s,X) $ and $ \zeta (s)$ have the same functional equation, the same Euler prodcut and the same Riemann-Weil formula
why one of them is 'easy' and can be solved but the other is so hard?? the zeta one $ \zeta (s)$