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edited Aug 23, 2011 at 14:37

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Stable theory: question about definability of independece

I would like to know why the relation: R(x,y) iff x independent from y (i.e: tp(x/y) doesn't fork over the empty set) is type definable in stable theory?

Thanks to the helper.

model-theory lo.logic

asked Aug 23, 2011 at 13:25

henry