Skip to main content
2 of 2
added 33 characters in body
Ian Morris
  • 6.2k
  • 2
  • 31
  • 64

Non-oscillatory behaviour in the subadditive ergodic theorem

I am currently reading an article in which the author goes to certain lengths which could be avoided if the following result were true:

Lemma (proposed): Let $T$ be an ergodic measure-preserving transformation of a probability space $(X,\mathcal{F},\mu)$, and let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of integrable functions from $X$ to $\mathbb{R}$ which satisfy the subadditivity relation $f_{n+m} \leq f_n \circ T^m + f_m$ a.e. for all integers $n,m \geq 1$. Suppose that $f_n(x) \to -\infty$ in the limit as $n \to \infty$ for $\mu$-a.e. $x \in X$. Then $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}\int f_n d\mu <0$.

Via the subadditive ergodic theorem, this effectively states that if $f_n(x) \to -\infty$ almost everywhere then it must do so at an asymptotically linear rate. The supposed lemma would also be equivalent to the statement that if $\frac{1}{n} f_n(x) \to 0$ almost everywhere, then for almost every $x$ the sequence $(f_n(x))$ must return infinitely often to some neighbourhood of $0$ which is not a neighbourhood of $-\infty$. If the sequence $(f_n)$ is additive rather than just subadditive then this last formulation of the result follows from a well-known theorem of G. Atkinson, but the more general subadditive case is less clear.

If the lemma were true then several parts of the paper I am reading would be redundant, which makes me wonder whether it is in fact false. Yet it seems rather plausible. Does anyone know whether this result is true or not?

Ian Morris
  • 6.2k
  • 2
  • 31
  • 64