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Does the isomorphic of the fundamental groups imply the existence of a mapping inducing an isomorphism?

A pair of continuous mappings $f \colon X \to Y$ and $g \colon Y \to X$ is called $\pi_1$-equivalence if they induce mutually inverse isomorphisms of fundamental groups. Spaces are called $\pi_1$-equivalent if there is $π_1$-equivalence between them.

Let $X, Y$ be CW-complexes

  1. Is it true that if $f \colon X \to Y$ induces an isomorphism of fundamental groups, then $X$ and $Y$ are $π_1$-equivalent?
  2. Is it true that if $\pi_1(X)$ is isomorphic to $\pi_1(Y)$, then $X$ and $Y$ are $\pi_1$-equivalent?

(added later)

  1. Is it true that if $\pi_1(X)$ is isomorphic to $\pi_1(Y)$, then there is of a mapping $f \colon X \to Y$ inducing an isomorphism or there is of a mapping $g \colon Y \to X$ inducing an isomorphism?