This question probably follows from standard geometric invariant theory. If true I'd to know a reference for it. Given a projective scheme $X\rightarrow S$ over the base $S$. Let's assume a finite group $G$ is acting on $X$ and its quotient is an $S$-scheme $X//G$. Is the quotient projective or at least proper? (I have seen versions of this over fields but not for arbitrary base.)
Is quotient of projective scheme over arbitrary base by a finite group also projective
user127776
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