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replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/

edited Apr 13, 2017 at 12:57

This should follow from the Salamander lemma, which, as you found out in your previous MO question, can be proved without the use of elements. It is a nice exercise, so I won't spell it out for you.

answered Feb 2, 2010 at 14:35

Chris Schommer-Pries

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