Let M,N be real smooth manifolds and p:M-->N a smooth map. Then smooth functions on M form a module over the ring of smooth functions on N (via pullback). Is it know whether this module is flat when p is a submersion?
Recall that flatness is equivalent to the following: whenever h1 ... hk are smooth functions on N and g1 ... gk are smooth functions on M such that:
h1g1 + ... + hkgk = 0 (as function on M)
then there are functions G1 ... Gr on M and ai,j on N such that:
gi= Σj ai,jGj for all i
and Σi hi ai,j= 0 for all j.
Some remarks:
This condition of flatness is equivalent to the usual one (see the comments below).
It is known that the inclusion of an open subset into N is flat since smooth functions on an open U are obtained from the smooth functions on N by localizing w.r.t. functions vanishing nowhere on U.
It is also known that a smooth flat map has to be open. Proofs of both of these facts can be found for example in the book: Gonzales, Salas, C^\infty differentiable spaces, Lecture notes in Mathematics, Springer 2000.
The equational condition of flatness I gave above seems to be the most reasonable thing to use trying to come up with a proof. But considering already the simplest situation here's what gets me stuck: suppose you want to check flatness of the standard projection of R^2 to R (by R I mean the reals), and consider the case of just one h(x) and g(x,y) such that hg=0. If you take h(x) to be a smooth function strictly positive for x<0 and 0 for x\geq 0, then the flatness condition translates into:
Any smooth function g(x,y) vanishing the half plane x\leq 0 admits a "factorization":
g(x,y)=Σj aj(x)Gj(x,y)
where the aj(x) are smooth functions vanishing on x\leq 0. (No restrictions on the Gj except smoothness).
Anyone has an idea how to prove this, or knows how to come up with a counter example?