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Proofreading, while the question is on the front page anyway
LSpice
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Is Monsky's theorem dependent on the axiom of choice?

The extension of the 2-adic valuation to the reals used in the usual proof clearly uses AC. But is this really necessary? After all, given an equidissection in $n$ triangles, it is finite, so it should be possible to construct a valuation for only the algebraic numbers, and the coordinates of the summits (with a finite number of "choices"), and then follow the proof to show that $n$ must be even. Or am I badly mistaken?

Feldmann Denis
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