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15 votes
5 answers
2k views

In what sense does the sentence $\operatorname{con}(\mathsf{PA})$ "say" that $\mathsf{PA}$ is consistent?

It seems common amongst logicians to think of "truth" as being relative to a particular structure. Consider, for instance, the first-order theory of groups. The sentence $\forall x\forall y(...
Joe Lamond's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
485 views

Extensions of the Ackermann interpretation to nonstandard theories of arithmetic

In their paper, " On Interpretations of Arithmetic and Set Theory" (Notre Dame Journal of Formal Logic, Vol. 8, No. 4 (2007), pp. 497-510) in section 7, "Fragments of Arithmetic and Set ...
Thomas Benjamin's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
209 views

Is $PRA$ + $TI({\epsilon_0})$ mutually interpretable with some theory in the language of set theory?

As is well known, the following theory is equiconsistent with $PA$: $ZFC$ with the axiom of infinity replaced by its negation. Since this theory is equiconsistent with $PA$, it would seem ...
Thomas Benjamin's user avatar
19 votes
3 answers
2k views

Is platonism regarding arithmetic consistent with the multiverse view in set theory?

A "truth" platonist for arithmetic believes, given a statement in the language of arithmetic, that the problem whether the statement is true has a definite answer. Prof. Hamkins has argued for a ...
AEWARG's user avatar
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