All Questions

It is well known that if $p$ is prime, Stirling numbers of the first and second kind, $s_1(p,k)$ and $s_2(p,k)$, are divisible by $p$ if $1<k\le p-1$ (Lagrange ; easiest is working in $\mathbb F_p$ ...

This a repost of a question I asked at Stack Exchange, but I got no answer so far, so I am trying here, even though it may not suit the "research level" requirement. Proposition: When $n$ and $m$ are ...