Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
4 votes
1 answer
678 views

When is normalization functorial?

Let $X$ and $Y$ be two irreducible, affine $\newcommand{\C}{\mathbb C}\C$-varieties. Let $f:X\to Y$ be a morphism. Denote by $u:\tilde X\to X$ and $v:\tilde Y\to Y$ their normalizations. Now, if $f$ ...
Jesko Hüttenhain's user avatar