All Questions
1 question
4
votes
1
answer
678
views
When is normalization functorial?
Let $X$ and $Y$ be two irreducible, affine $\newcommand{\C}{\mathbb C}\C$-varieties. Let $f:X\to Y$ be a morphism. Denote by $u:\tilde X\to X$ and $v:\tilde Y\to Y$ their normalizations. Now, if $f$ ...