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Can we conclude $\sup_g\int f_1g\le\sup_g\int f_2g$ from $\int f_1\le\int f_2$ in this situation?
Disclaimer: Please bear with me, the question isn't as complicated as it looks like, but I wasn't able to find any simplification for which no counterexample comes to my find.
Let $(E,\mathcal E,\...
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Maximize a Lebesgue integral subject to an equality constraint
I want to maximize $$\Phi_g(w):=\sum_{i\in I}\sum_{j\in I}\int\lambda({\rm d}x)\int\lambda({\rm d}y)\left(w_i(x)p(x)q_j(y)\wedge w_j(y)p(y)q_i(x)\right)\sigma_{ij}(x,y)|g(x)-g(y)|^2$$ over all choices ...