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$k(F_i)_{i=1}^{n}=k(G_j)_{j=1}^{m}$ iff there exist $a_i,b_j \in k$ such that $\langle F_i-a_i \rangle_{i=1}^{n} = \langle G_j-b_j \rangle_{j=1}^{m}$
Let $k$ be an algebraically closed field of characteristic zero, for example $k=\mathbb{C}$ and let $F_1,\ldots,F_n,G_1,\ldots,G_m \in \mathbb{C}[x,y]$, $n,m \in \mathbb{N}-\{0\}$.
Claim:
$\mathbb{C}(...
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$\mathbb{C}(u(x,y),v(x,y),f(x)+g(y))=\mathbb{C}(x,y)$ implies $\mathbb{C}(u(x,y),v(x,y))=\mathbb{C}(x,y)$?
The following question is a direct continuation of this question:
Let $u,v \in \mathbb{C}[x,y]$.
Assume that for every $f \in \mathbb{C}[x]$ and every $g \in \mathbb{C}[y]$ (excluding the cases where $...
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