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A $\mathbb{Z}_2$-equivariant map from $n$-torus to $2$-sphere that is null-homotopic is $\mathbb{Z}_2$-homotopic to a non-surjective map?
I have been thinking on the problem below for a while and I am not sure if it is correct or not. I am trying to see if there exists a counter-example for the problem below.
Problem: Let $f: (S^1)^n \...
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