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$\frac {f (0)}{2}+ \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}f (k)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \mathcal{L} \{ f \} (2 \pi i n)$
I obtained the very strange formula above and at begining I was just wanted know how to interpretate it. But now when I know what is this with help of @Carlo Beenakker, I am leaving it as a proof. BTW ...
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