All Questions
1 question
6
votes
1
answer
413
views
Analyticity of $f*g$ with $f$ and $g$ smooth on $\mathbb{R}$ and analytic on $\mathbb{R}^*$
Suppose that we have two real functions $f$ and $g$ both belonging to $\mathcal{C}^\infty(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{R})$ analytic on $\mathbb{R}\setminus\{0\}$ but non-analytic at $x=0$. Is the convolution (...