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Suppose $\{ Y_i\}_{i = 1}^n$ is i.i.d. Bernoulli distribution with mean $p$. Denote the sample of $\{ Y_i\}_{i = 1}^n$ as $\overline{Y} = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i = 1}^n Y_i$. I want to know where there ...