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If $A$, $B$ are abelian groups such that $\mathrm{Hom}(A, G) \cong \mathrm{Hom}(B, G)$ for all abelian groups $G$, must $A$ and $B$ be isomorphic?
$\DeclareMathOperator\Hom{Hom}$The question is in the title. If the isomorphism $\Hom(A, G) \cong \Hom(B, G)$ is natural in $G$ then this is just the Yoneda Lemma. If $A$ and $B$ are finitely ...
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