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An old MO answer by Noah Snyder makes a claim I don't completely understand, but mostly because I don't know any examples. The answer claims that in some examples of (things that one would want to call) group objects $G$ in some category $C$ with finite products, inversion is not a morphism, but an "anti-morphism" (if that notion makes sense in $C$).

  • Why should this be the case? (Preferably illustrated with a simple example)
  • What does "anti-morphism" even mean in general?

Here's a stab at the second question: if $C$ is equipped with a functor $F : C \to C$ with $F^2 \cong \text{id}_C$, then perhaps an anti-morphism $G \to G$ is a morphism $G \to F(G)$ (or equivalently a morphism $F(G) \to G$). In the category of Poisson manifolds $F$ appears to correspond to negating the Poisson bracket, whereas in the category of noncommutative rings $F$ appears to correspond to taking the opposite ring.

But $F$ ought to be special in some way since, as Noah says, inversion is a property, not a structure. I guess what he means by this is that the "correct" definition of a group object is

A monoid object $G$ such that for every point $g : 1 \to G$ there is a unique point $g^{-1} : 1 \to G$ such that the composite of $g \times g^{-1} : 1 \to G \times G$ with multiplication $m : G \times G \to G$ gives the identity $e : 1 \to G$, and similarly in the other order.

But this seems possibly too weak of a definition if there aren't many morphisms $1 \to G$. In any case, the map sending $g$ to $g^{-1}$ is a map of sets $\text{Hom}(1, G) \to \text{Hom}(1, G)$, and I guess this ought to be lifted to an anti-morphism $G \to F(G)$ in some way, which I suppose means we need a natural identification $\text{Hom}(1, G) \cong \text{Hom}(1, F(G))$. And this seems like an oddly specific thing to demand of $F$ unless $F$ canonically arises somehow from some other procedure (that is, is itself a property of, and not a structure on, $C$). Is that the case in the above examples? See Ryan Reich's comment below.

Edit: Is the following an example? Let $\text{Vect}$ be the category of finite-dimensional vector spaces over a field. We'd like to be able to say that $\text{Vect}$ is some kind of "really weak group object" in $\text{Cat}$ in the sense that it's got a multiplication $\otimes$ given by tensor product and a "weak inverse" given by taking the dual space, but taking dual spaces is contravariant. So I guess contravariant functors are the "anti-morphisms" in $\text{Cat}$, which means that $F$ is taking the opposite category.

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    $\begingroup$ Presumably, F fixes the terminal object 1, so Hom(1, G) = Hom(F(1), F(G)) = Hom(1, F(g)), right? $\endgroup$
    – Ryan Reich
    Commented May 30, 2011 at 17:36
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, right. That makes sense. $\endgroup$ Commented May 30, 2011 at 17:39
  • $\begingroup$ Note that the example with (not necessarily commutative) rings is just like your vector-space example, in that the antimorphisms are the contravariant functors: specifically, viewing a ring as a one-object, abelian-group enriched category, the desired anti-morphisms between rings are the contravariant enriched functors (as the notion of "opposite ring" is just a special case of the general notion of "opposite category"). $\endgroup$ Commented May 30, 2011 at 18:08
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    $\begingroup$ I also want to note that inversion is only seemingly a structure even when given as a morphism. If you interpret the structure of a monoid object as being a factorization of the functor of points through the category of monoids, then the property of being a group object is the property of that factorization taking values in the full subcategory of groups. This gives a natural inversion on the functor of points and, thus, on the object itself. On the category side, the inversion map (if it exists) is unique, so its existence is merely a property. $\endgroup$
    – Ryan Reich
    Commented May 30, 2011 at 18:22
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    $\begingroup$ My first reaction to this is to say: "You silly twisted boy, you". $\endgroup$ Commented May 30, 2011 at 21:30

2 Answers 2

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$\newcommand{\cat}[1]{\mathbf{#1}}\newcommand{\id}{\mathrm{id}}$I like your definition of an antimorphism (which, following Ben Webster's suggestion, I will call a "heteromorphism") and I'll raise you one: if $\cat{C}$ comes with an autoequivalence $F$, an $F$-heteromorphism is by definition a morphism $X \to F(X)$. Why work in this generality? Here's why.

I see one big issue with defining a group with heteromorphism inverse, namely, how one is to state the inversion property: $$G \xrightarrow{\Delta} G \times G \xrightarrow{i \times \id} G \times G \xrightarrow{m} G$$ if in fact we have $i \colon G \to F(G)$; how can we get both of the latter factors the same so that $m$ may be applied? My answer is, philosophically: since a heteromorphism is a morphism after allowing the loss of some structure, we must check this diagram also after forgetting that structure. This will turn $F$ into the identity.

Here's what I mean. Let $S \colon \cat{C} \to \cat{D}$ be some "structure-forgetting" faithful functor that preserves products, and suppose $F \colon \cat{C} \to \cat{C}$ acts fiberwise for $S$, in that $SF = S$ (I suppose more generally we could also specify $\phi \colon SF \cong S$). For example, $S$ could be "forgetting the Poisson structure" or "forgetting the multiplication in a noncommutative ring" or "forget the directions of arrows in categories". Correspondingly, $F$ would be "take the negative Poisson structure" or "take the opposite ring" or "take the opposite category". We will define all the morphisms for a group object in $\cat{C}$, but check their properties in $\cat{D}$ (since $S$ is faithful, this won't result in any errors).

So, say that a $(\cat{C},F)$-group object (any suggestions for a better name for this?) is an object $G \in \cat{C}$ together with morphisms $$m \colon G \times G \to G, \qquad i \colon G \to F(G), \qquad u \colon 1 \to G$$ constituting a group object structure on $S(G)$. In particular, the above diagram reads $$S(G) \xrightarrow{\Delta} S(G) \times S(G) \xrightarrow{S(i) \times \id} SF(G) \times S(G) \xrightarrow{m} S(G),$$ where we have $SF = S$ by definition.

Note that the inverse $i$, if it exists, is unique, since $S(i)$ is unique in $\cat{D}$ and $S$ is faithful. So it is, as for regular group objects, not a structure but a property. Note also that I omit the notation $S$ from "$(\cat{C},F)$-group object" because it is enough that some $S$ exist and that $F$ act on its fibers, but it doesn't matter which one we use.

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  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I see. This is quite nice. We need $S$ to preserve products, though, right? $\endgroup$ Commented May 30, 2011 at 19:30
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    $\begingroup$ By the way, when we discussed this (actually at tea) years ago, I think we decided an "anti-morphism" should obviously be called a "heteromorphism." $\endgroup$
    – Ben Webster
    Commented May 30, 2011 at 19:56
  • $\begingroup$ @Qiaochu: Yes. Basically, I have in mind that $\cat{C}$ is a "concrete in $\cat{D}$ category", like Poisson manifolds in sets or some such. @Ben: Of course! It's perfect. I shall edit immediately. $\endgroup$
    – Ryan Reich
    Commented May 30, 2011 at 20:22
  • $\begingroup$ There's also an obvious concept of a "weak $(\cat{C}, S)$-group object", for lack of a better term, in which we give a monoid in $\cat{C}$ which is a group in $\cat{D}$ but with its inverse not necessarily lifting at all. I have no idea what that entails. $\endgroup$
    – Ryan Reich
    Commented May 30, 2011 at 20:33
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    $\begingroup$ Warning: The term ‘heteromorphism’ is also used in another sense: given an adjunction $F: C \rightleftarrows D :G$, an object $x$ of $C$, and an object $y$ of $D$, an $(F,G)$-heteromorphism from $x$ to $y$ is $C$-morphism from $x$ to $G(y)$, or equivalently a $D$-morphism from $F(x)$ to $y$. For example, using free groups and underlying sets, a heteromorphism from a set $x$ to a group $y$ is what ordinary mathematicians would call a ‘function’ from $x$ to $y$. Heteromorphisms cannot be composed with each other, but they are acted on by (homo)morphisms on either side. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 24, 2012 at 2:43
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Here's a repair of the definition suggested in the OP. Namely, we need the additional assumption that $\text{Hom}(1, -) : C \to \text{Set}$ is faithful (so concretizes $C$). Then with the condition described in the OP, we get a map of sets $^{-1} : \text{Hom}(1, G) \to \text{Hom}(1, G)$, and now it really makes sense to ask whether this lifts to a morphism in $C$; faithfulness ensures that if such a morphism exists, it is unique, and therefore really a property of $G$.

So it may happen that $^{-1}$ exists but is not a morphism in $C$ (and that this is the sense in which $G$ is a group object), but also that $\text{Hom}(1, -)$ factors through some other category $D$ in which it is a morphism. For example, if $C$ is the category of Poisson manifolds, then apparently $D$ is the category of smooth manifolds. This provides some motivation for the definition in Ryan Reich's answer, and actually it suggests an even weaker definition (edit: which I see Ryan has already suggested!):

Let $C, D$ be categories with finite products and $S : C \to D$ a faithful, product-preserving functor. A (let's say) $D$-virtual group object is a monoid object $G \in C$ together with a morphism $i : S(G) \to S(G)$ such that $S(G)$ (with the induced monoidal structure) is a group object in $D$ with inverse $i$.

I don't know whether this implies that there needs to be a good notion of heteromorphism associated to $i$ (unless by "heteromorphism" you mean nothing more and nothing less than a morphism in $D$).

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  • $\begingroup$ Actually, it sounds like you are really motivating my last comment to my answer. So you do think it is meaningful to consider an inversion map which simply has no analogue in $\mathbf{C}$? $\endgroup$
    – Ryan Reich
    Commented May 31, 2011 at 15:49
  • $\begingroup$ Ha, comment conflict. What you just edited in is also what I was suggesting. $\endgroup$
    – Ryan Reich
    Commented May 31, 2011 at 15:50
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, ha again. I thought I said something different, but that really is the last comment in your answer. Okay, before I say anything else, can someone tell me whether there's any sense in which $i^2$ must be a morphism? $\endgroup$ Commented May 31, 2011 at 16:03
  • $\begingroup$ I think the "virtual group object" setting is the only appropriate one in which to interpret this question, because it emphasizes that the inverse only exists in $\mathbf{D}$. In that sense, $i^2$ is the identity in $\mathbf{D}$ like for any group object, and thus lifts to $\mathbf{C}$ (as the identity, since $S$ is faithful). If you happen to be working with some kind of inversion $F$, and if $F^2 = I$, then you could also say $s(i)i = \mathrm{id}$, but I wonder if it is possible to have, say, an $F$ of order 3, so that we only have "$i^3 = \mathrm{id}$". An example would be nice here. $\endgroup$
    – Ryan Reich
    Commented May 31, 2011 at 16:16
  • $\begingroup$ I meant $F(i) i$. $\endgroup$
    – Ryan Reich
    Commented May 31, 2011 at 16:17

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