Does: $$\sum_{1 \leq i<j} \frac{1}{i j^2} = \sum_{1 \leq k} \frac{1}{k^3}?$$

Motivation: Call the above sum $S$, and let $$T := \sum_{ GCD(i,j)=1} \frac{1}{\max(i,j) i j}.$$ The sum $T$ came up in a computation on Jim Propp's question here. Numerical computation suggested that $T$ is extremely close to $3$.

It is not hard to show that $$T = \zeta(3)^{-1} \sum \frac{1}{\max(i,j) i j} = \zeta(3)^{-1} \left( \sum_{k} \frac{1}{k^3} + 2 \sum_{i<j} \frac{1}{i j^2} \right) = 1 + 2 \zeta(3)^{-1} S,$$ by breaking into cases according to whether $i<j$, $i=j$ or $i>j$. So $T=3$ iff $S=\zeta(3)$.

As I describe in the above linked thread, numerical computations suggest that the sums agree to $20$ digits of accuracy. What is going on?

of course? $\endgroup$ – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Feb 11 '11 at 17:57