Let $n,m,k$ be positive integers. Consider the action of symmetric group $S^n$ on $\mathbb{R}^{n\times i}$ (for $i\in \{m,k\}$) by permuting rows; i.e. for each $\pi\in S^n$ and every $n\times i$ matrix $X=(x_1,\dots,x_n)^{\top}=(x_i)_{i=1}^{n\,\top}$ we have $$ \pi\cdot X := (x_{\pi(i)})_{i=1}^{n\,\top}. $$ We say that a function $f:\mathbb{R}^{n\times m}\to \mathbb{R}^{n\times k}$ is equivariant (with respect to this action) if: for all $\pi\in S^n$ and every $X\in \mathbb{R}^{n\times m}$ we have $$ f(\pi\cdot X) = \pi\cdot f(X). $$
Is it the case then that $$ f(X) = (g(x_i))_{i=1}^{n,\top} $$ for some function $g\in \mathbb{R}^k\to \mathbb{R}^m$?