$\newcommand{\fin}{\mathrm{fin}}$Under what hypotheses does there exist a uniform ideal $I$ on $\omega_1$ such that $P(\omega_1)/I \cong P(\omega)/\fin$? What is the consistency strength?
It follows from work of Woodin that if we have $\diamondsuit$ and a countably complete $\omega_1$-dense ideal on $\omega_1$, then such a (only finitely complete) ideal $I$ exists as above.
Note that I am not asking whether $P(\omega_1)/I$ and $P(\omega)/\fin$ are forcing-equivalent, but rather if they are literally isomorphic.