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If we restrict all parameters in the set building axioms of $\sf ZFC$ to definable sets, would the celebrated Cantor's theorem still apply? Can existence of uncountable sets be proven at all?

The set building axioms of $\sf ZFC$ are the axioms of: pairing, union, powerset, Separation and Replacement\Collection.

To clarify what I mean by this restriction, the idea is that the parameters to be definable by formulas having a single free variable, take the axiom of pairing for example, this would turn into the following scheme:

Pairing: if $\varphi; \psi$ are formulas in which "$x$" only occurs free, and that do not have a free variable other than "$x$"; then:

$\forall a \forall b \, \bigl(a=\{x \mid \varphi\} \land b=\{x \mid \psi \} \\\to \exists c \forall y \, (y \in c \leftrightarrow y=a \lor y=b )\bigr)$

In other words, is it consistent to add an axiom that all sets are countable?

Clarification: by parameters in the abovementioned set building axioms, I mean the variables quantified before [i.e., on the left of] the asserted to exist set.

One more remark, I noticed that there can be many versions of this question by easing those restrictions from some of the mentioned axioms. One version is to just remove that restriction from pairing, or just remove it from powerset axiom, or actually just remove it from both pairing and powerset axioms. We can also have similar partial easing with any of union or powerset, or any two of pairing, union, and powerset.

I think most interesting would be to limit definability of parameters to axioms of Set Union, Separation and Replacement\Collection.

An even less restrictive version is to just limit the condition of definability of parameters (in the above sense) to the instances of Separation and Replacement\Collection.

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    $\begingroup$ Diagonalization gives you a definable function that maps enumerations of sets of natural numbers to sets not in the enumeration. Isn't that enough? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 8:14
  • $\begingroup$ @MichaelGreinecker, Note the formulation I've given in the example of pairing, by "definable" I mean "parameter free definable", this is something that Cantor's diagonal argument don't possess. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 9:13
  • $\begingroup$ You are using the word "parameter" in a highly idiosyncratic manner. I find the question far less natural than the question addressed by Levy, Schindler, and Schlicht as in my answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 18:04
  • $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins, of course its less natural than the one addressed by Levy, Schindler and Schlicht. But Levy did consider harsher versions than that, I mean the conditional versions. At least here you have biconditional forms but restricted to definable parameters (in my idiosyncratic sense). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 18:14
  • $\begingroup$ There are models M of ZF such that that for each $m \in M$, there is a formula $\varphi(x)$ in which $x$ occurs free and has no other free variables such that M satisfies "m is the collection of all elements x that satisfy $\varphi (x)$. Does this answer your question? $\endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    Commented Mar 29 at 15:25

2 Answers 2

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Parameter-free ZFC is equivalent to ZFC. See

Therefore, in parameter-free ZFC we can prove all the same theorems as in ZFC, including the existence of uncountable sets.

[Update. The OP evidently intends the question with a special understanding of the term "parameter", different from the usual meaning of that term, which makes this answer less relevant for the intended question.]

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  • $\begingroup$ But, this is not parameter free ZFC. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 13:51
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    $\begingroup$ Using a definable set as a parameter is the same as not using any parameter, since it is definable. You don't need it as a parameter. But in any case, parameter-free ZFC would be even weaker than definable-parameters, and still fully powerful, so anything in between is also equally powerful. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 13:55
  • $\begingroup$ Parameter-free ZFC is not truly parameter free as its name connotes. You have unleashed parameters in pairing, union, and powerset axioms. Only Separation and Replacement is parameter free. Here you don't have that. The parameter free implicational form of ZFC for example is weaker than ZFC, because you don't have the full axioms of pairing, union and powerset; consult Levy for that. So, I don't think you can carry on the construction (in the article your referenced) that proves the equivalence with ZFC, I mean in this system of course. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 15:20
  • $\begingroup$ This can be seen in Kanamori's article: Levy and set theory. Annals of Pure and Applied Logic 140 (2006) 233–252. See page 247 $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 15:30
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    $\begingroup$ Schindler & Schlicht are speaking of ZFC formalized with biconditional forms of pairing, union and power set. That doesn't apply to the implicational (conditional) forms, actually if you weaken just one of them to conditional form you cannot get the equivalence with ZFC. Here, in this theory I'm not sure how this would relate to those issues, since all axioms of pairing, union and powerset are not the full forms, the parameters are restricted to just parameter free definable sets. So, it is not clear to me if this is weaker than the biconditional parameter free ZFC. Hence the question. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27 at 15:41
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The proof below is due to George Boolos, and appears in his article Constructing Cantorian Counterexamples, Journal of Philosophical Logic, Vol. 26, No. 3 (Jun., 1997), pp. 237-23.  

Boolos gives an explicit proof that there cannot exist a one-to-one function from the powerset of a set into the same set.

A similar proof appears as Corollary 1.3 of the following paper (a copy of which is available here).

Akihiro Kanamori, David Pincus, Does GCH imply AC locally?, in Paul Erdős and his mathematics, II (Budapest, 1999)", Bolyai Soc. Math. Stud., 11, János Bolyai Math. Soc., Budapest, (2002), 413–426.

Suppose $f: \mathcal{P}(A)\rightarrow A$. We want to explicitly define subsets $B$ and $C$ of $A$ such that $B\ne C$ but $f(B) = f(C)$.

For any binary relation $r$, let $r_{x} = \{y: (y,x)\in r \land y\neq x \}$, and let $\mathrm{field}(r)$ be the field of $r$, i.e., the set of objects that appear as the first or second coordinate of an ordered pair in $r$.

Call a relation $r$ to be good iff $r$ is a reflexive well-ordering of a subset of $A$ and for every $x$ in $\mathrm{field}(r)$, $f(r_{x}) = x$. Let $R$ be the union of all good $r$.

If $r$ and $r'$ are good, then one of $r$ and $r'$ is an initial segment of the other; therefore $R$ is itself good. Let $C = \mathrm{field}(R)$. For $C \subseteq A$, Let $x = f(C)$, and let $B = R_{x}$.

Note that $C$, $x$, and $B$ are all explicitly defined from $f$.

If $x \notin C$, then $R \cup \{(y, x): y \in C \lor y = x \}$ is good, and therefore $x \in C$. So $x\in C$.

Since $x \not\in \{y: yRx \land y\neq x\} = B$, $B\neq C$.

Since $R$ is good, $x = f(R_{x}) = f (B)$. But $x = f (C)$. Thus $f$ is not one-one.

As noted by Boolos, since $R_{x} \subseteq \mathrm{field}(R)$, the above proof shows a nontrivial strengthening of the nonexistence of an injection of the powerset of $A$ into $A$, namely:

Theorem. If $f: \mathcal{P}(A) \rightarrow A$, then there are subsets $B$ and $C$ of $A$ such that $B\subsetneq C$ and $f (B) = f (C)$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Hi Ali, sorry about the overlapping edits! I'll stop, and of course feel free to revert anything I've done (I think I've just fixed some tex and added links but I may have made a mistake). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29 at 18:17
  • $\begingroup$ @NoahSchweber Thanks Noah, my interface with MO is having problems and I cannot see the preview. I am now done with my infinitely many edits; feel free to edit more please to deal with the remaining infelicities. $\endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    Commented Mar 29 at 18:25
  • $\begingroup$ Yes! But why should we think this proof holds here? I mean in this theory. Why you think we can define $R,B,C$? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29 at 18:26
  • $\begingroup$ The answer to your question is based on the construction of $R$, $B$, and $C$. They are defined explicitly, as noted by Boolos (in the proof I copied). $\endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    Commented Mar 29 at 18:33
  • $\begingroup$ @AliEnayat, they are defined using a parameter "$f$", this invalidate them here. So, this fails here. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29 at 18:53

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