Let $X\subset \mathbb{Z}^n$ be a finite set (vertex set) and $1\leq u\leq n$. For $x=(x_1 ,\ldots ,x_n)\neq y=(y_1 ,\ldots ,y_n) \in X$, we define the adjacency $\kappa_u$ on $X$ as follows: $x\sim_{\kappa_u}y$ if and only if (1): for at most $u$ indices $i$ we have $|x_i -y_i|=1$, and (2) for all indices $j$, $|x_j -y_j|\neq 1$ implies $x_j =y_j$. By $[0,m]_{\mathbb{Z}}$ I mean $0\sim_{\kappa_1}1\sim_{\kappa_2}\sim \cdots \sim_{\kappa_1}m$. $f:X\to X$ is continuous if $x\sim_{\kappa_u}y$ implies $f(x)\sim_{\kappa_u}f(y)$. $f,g:X\to X$ are homotopic if there is a function $h:X\times [0,m]_{\mathbb{Z}}\to X$ such that: (1) for all $x\in X$, $h(x,0)=f(x)$ and $h(x,m)=g(x)$; (2) for all $x\in X$, $h_x :[0,m]_{\mathbb{Z}}\to X$ by $h_x (t)=h(x,t)$ is continuous, and (3) for all $t\in [0,m]_{\mathbb{Z}}$, $h_t :X\to X$ $h_t (x)=h(x,t)$ is continuous. If there exist continuous $f:X\to Y$ and $g:Y\to X$ such that $gf$ is homotopic to ${\rm id}_X$ and $fg$ is homotopic to ${\rm id}_Y$, we say $X$ and $Y$ are homotopy equivalent.
My question: is there a finie $X$ and a non-surjective continuous function $f:X\to X$ such that $f\simeq {\rm id}_X$ but $f(X)$ and $X$ are not homotopy equivalent?