Consider $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^2 $ (or $\mathbb{R}^3$). The well known stationary Stokes equations in the incompressible case are
\begin{equation} \begin{cases} - \Delta u + \nabla p = f \text{ in } \Omega\\ \operatorname{div} (u)= 0\\ u|_{\partial \Omega} =0 \end{cases} \end{equation}
with $f \in H^{-1} (\Omega)$, $(u, p ) \in H_0 ^1 (\Omega ) \times L^2 _0 (\Omega )$, where $L^2 _0 (\Omega )$ is made of 0 mean functions. Now, I want to study this equation and looking online I found a humongous amount of information, articles etc. I admit I haven't had time to read even a fraction of them, but in particular I am interested in understanding something. The Stokes equation can be seen as a constrained minimization problem, in the sense that if you look for the minimum of
$$ J(u )= \frac{1}{2} \int_\Omega |\nabla u|^2 - \int_\Omega f u \text{ for } u \in V=\{ v \in H^1_0 \mid \operatorname{div} (v)=0\},$$
that solves the equation and actually the pression is the Lagrange multiplier (this is shown, for example, in Evans's PDE book). However a way the numerical analysts seem to view the equation is as a saddle point problem, viewing $(u, p) \in H_0 ^1 (\Omega ) \times L^2 _0 (\Omega )$ and solving it with a finite element method (see these notes for instance https://finite-element.github.io/L6_stokes.html). I have some background in Calculus of Variations and a little knowledge of numerical analysis, but enough to know that a having a minimum is much better than having a saddle point in almost every case. So, what is the value in studying Stokes equation as a saddle point rather than a minimum? The only reason that comes to my mind is that when you apply the FEM, while in $H^1 _0 \times L^2$ it's easy to construct finite dimensional spaces and base functions, you cannot do it for $V$ due to the divergence free condition. Is that it or am I missing something?