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For any consistent and effective theory $T$ fulfilling Gödel's criteria, let $G_T$ be the Gödel sentence of $T$, that is: $$ G_T \iff \neg \exists x: \operatorname{Proof}_T(x,\ulcorner G_T \urcorner)$$ So, we have $T \not \vdash G_T$, which would make adding $\neg G_T$ to it consistent, but this would be another theory.

Is there an example of some effective [all it's theorems are recursively enumerable + represents all computable functions], consistent first order theory $T$ such that: $T \vdash \neg G_T$.

Of course $T$ would be unsound, since it's proving a false arithmetical statement; and it would be also incomplete by Gödel–Rosser proof. But, how can one effectively define such a theory?

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    $\begingroup$ If you can't type ö, ä, or ü in a German word, an acceptable substitute is to type oe, ae, or ue, respectively. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 11, 2023 at 18:29
  • $\begingroup$ @MichaelHardy, Thanks! $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 11, 2023 at 18:35

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$\newcommand{\Con}{\operatorname{Con}}$In fact, there is no issue here - already the "naive" approach does the job, and the subtlety you are worried about is irrelevant.

The Godel sentence $G_T$ for a ("reasonable") theory $T$ is $T$-provably-equivalent to $\Con(T)$. In particular, for any stronger theory $S$ we will have both $S\vdash \Con(S)\rightarrow \Con(T)$ and $S\vdash \neg G_T\leftrightarrow\neg \Con(T)$ as well as $S\vdash G_S\leftrightarrow \Con(S)$.

In particular, letting $S=T+\neg G_T$ we get $S\vdash \neg G_S$: this is because $S\vdash \neg \Con(T)$, so $S\vdash \neg \Con(S)$, so $S\vdash \neg G_S$ since $\Con(S)$ and $G_S$ are $S$-provably equivalent.

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  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I see that you make the same argument as me. I hadn't realized that at first, because you said "does not arise", but you should have said "does arise". $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 9, 2023 at 14:46
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    $\begingroup$ What do you mean by 'reasonable'? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 9, 2023 at 14:47
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    $\begingroup$ @ZuhairAl-Johar Computably axiomatizable and interpreting enough arithmetic; the usual meaning in this context. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 9, 2023 at 14:49
  • $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins I've edited for clarity. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 9, 2023 at 14:50
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The answer is yes. Let $T$ be the theory PA + $\neg$Con(PA). So this theory proves $\neg$Con(PA) and hence also $\neg$Con(T). But as Noah mentions, Con(T) is provably equivalent in T to the Godel sentence for T, and so T proves the negation of its own Godel sentence.

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