Let $C$ be a singular curve defined over a local field $K$. Let $\tilde{C}$ be its smooth compactification(maybe this is not normalization).
Why $\tilde{C}(K)\neq \emptyset$ implies ${C}(K)\neq \emptyset$ ?
First line of page $3$ of https://arxiv.org/pdf/2112.02470.pdf , this is because of 'implicit function theorem'. In this paper, we especially think the case $C:qy^2=x^4-p$($p,q$ are caprice integers)
But I'm stucking with what the statement of 'implicit function theorem' is here. I searched a lot, but I couldn't find any statement which fits in this context. I will be appreciated if you could tell me what the 'implicit function theorem' is here.
Reference or another approach(not using implicit function theorem) is also appreciated.