For $A,B\in {\cal P}(\omega)$ let us say that $A\simeq_{\rm{fin}} B$ if both $A\setminus B$ and $B\setminus A$ are finite. It is easy to see that this establishes an equivalence relation on ${\cal P}(\omega)$. Moreover, we say $A\subseteq^* B$ if $A\setminus B$ is finite. This relation can be used to impose an ordering on the set of equivalence classes on ${\cal P}(\omega)$; we denote that ordered set by ${\cal P}(\omega)/\rm{fin}$.
Question. If $P, Q$ are partially ordered sets with $P\times Q \cong {\cal P}(\omega)/\rm{fin}$, does this imply that one of $P, Q$ consists of $1$ element only?