In the LPS paper "Ramanujan graphs" the adjacency matrix of $X^{p,q}$, for simplicity say that $p,q\equiv1\mod{4}$ and $\left(\frac{p}{q}\right)=1$ (so, nonbipartite) and $n=\lvert X^{p,q}\rvert$, is considered with spectrum $p+1=\lambda_0>\lambda_1\ge\cdots\ge\lambda_{n-1}>-(p+1)$. Then, the "angle" $\theta_j$ is introduced as $\lambda_j=2\sqrt{p}\cos\theta_j$, where $$\theta\in\begin{cases}[0,\pi] & \text{$\lambda$ is in the bulk of the spectrum} \\\ i\mathbb{R}_+ & \lambda>2\sqrt{p} \\\ \pi+i\mathbb{R} & \lambda<-2\sqrt{p}.\end{cases}$$ I think it is implicitly used that "$\cos$" is really $\cos(x)=\frac{1}{2}(e^{ix}+e^{-ix})$ and $\sin(x)=\frac{1}{2i}(e^{ix}-e^{-ix})$, in order to allow for $\lambda$ outside of the bulk.
I am looking at Case ii. in the proof of Theorem 4.1, on pgs. 13/14 of the linked PDF version. The crucial expression ends up being (for even $k$) $$\sum\limits_{0\le j<n}\frac{\sin((k+1)\theta_j)}{\sin\theta_j}.$$ It is claimed without explanation that this sum equals $$\frac{2}{p^{\frac{k}{2}}}\frac{p^{k+1}-1}{p-1}+o(p^\frac{k}{2}).$$ My first question is: Where does this asymptotic evaluation come from?
Then, the paper reaches the conclusion that $$\sum\limits_{0<j<n}\frac{\sin((k+1)\theta_j)}{\sin\theta_j}\in O(p^{k\epsilon})$$ (having already resolved the trivial eigenvalue) and claims then that $\theta_j\in\mathbb{R}$ as a consequence. My second question is: Why does this consequence hold? My best guess for this is that for $\lambda$ not in the bulk, the corresponding $\theta$ has $t:=e^{i\theta}=\frac{\lambda}{2\sqrt{p}}\pm\sqrt{\frac{\lambda^2}{4p}-1}$ (the sign agreeing with $\lambda$'s) satisfying $\lvert t\rvert>1$ and we can compute that $$\frac{\sin((k+1)\theta)}{\sin\theta}=\frac{1}{t^k}(1+t^2+t^4+\cdots+t^{2k})$$ so that for very large (still even) $k$ and small $\epsilon$, this positive term would dominate. However I am not sure how correct this is.