Consider, $M$, a smooth $m$ dimensional submanifold of $\mathbf R^n$. Does there exist a smooth map $X: \mathbf{R}^m\to\mathbf R^n$ such that $M=X(\mathbf R^m)$?
$X$ may have points at which the Jacobian is singular, which means that $M$ doesn't have to be diffeomorphic to $\mathbf{R}^m$. Furthermore, the stereographic map shows that there exists a smooth map between manifolds of different topology, so that $M$ and $\mathbf{R}^m$ apparently don't even have to be homoeomorphic. This then raises the question whether any $M$ can be represented thus.